My partner has been seperated for 2 years though no legal seperation agreement was ever drawn up. He now wishes to divorce his wife, however, we are concerned that he may be liable for an ongoing 'maintenance payment' even though they have no children together. I understand this in cases where the wife's financial situation has suffered as a result of the separation, but would the fact that she works full-time, and has supported herself financially without any aid from him, give good grounds for any payment to be requested? He has no pension provision, is self employed and they do not own a property. He has left her his car, and all of the furnishings in the rented home. he now rents a property himself. Is it likley he would have to start supporting her financially again, if they were to divorce?